WHAT IS SAT ?
The Scholastic Aptitude Test
is a Standardized test that measures verbal,
mathematical and analytical skills. It is intended to
help the graduate schools (of all fields other than
business) assess the potential of applicants for
advanced study. The Board
is a national nonprofit membership association whose
mission is to prepare, inspire, and connect students
to college and opportunity, with a commitment to
excellence and equity. The Board is composed of more
than 4,200 schools, colleges, universities, and other
educational organizations. Each year, the College
Board serves more than three million students and
their parents, 22,000 high schools, and 3,500 colleges
through major programs and services in college
admissions, guidance, assessment, financial aid,
enrollment, and teaching and learning. A board of
trustees composed of 31 members, seven of whom are ex
officio, governs the College Board. The SAT is given
seven times a year at thousands of testing centers
throughout the world.
Most students take the SAT during their junior or senior year of high school. About half the students who take the SAT do so twice in the spring of their junior year and fall of their senior year. Today, nearly 80 percent of four-year colleges and universities use test scores in admissions decisions. Research has repeatedly demonstrated that the best way to predict freshman year grade point average is to use a combination of SAT scores and the high school grade point average.
SAT TEST MODULES
Duration: 3 hours, 45 minutes
There are 3 sections Critical Reading, Math and Writing sections (200-800 points/section)
The SAT measures general scholastic aptitude in three areas: critical reading, quantitative reasoning, and writing.
The Critical Reading Section (formerly known as the verbal section) has two question types: sentence completions and reading comprehension questions. Within the reading comprehension section, there are both long reading passages and short (one paragraph) reading passage questions. All questions are multiple choice with five answer choices.
The Quantitative Section has two types of questions: multiple choice and "grid-ins," which have an answer grid that allows you to enter any four-digit number. These questions cover four main topic areas: arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and mathematical logic.
The Writing Section of the SAT exam consists of two parts: a student-written essay section, in which you'll be asked to write a short essay (25 minutes), and multiple choice questions (35 minutes) that will measure your ability to identify grammatical errors and improve sentences or paragraphs.
ELPT
The English Language Proficiency Test (ELPT) is going to be offered on November 2, 2002, and January 25, 2003 at designated test centers, and on April 22, 2003 at participating schools in the U.S., U.S. territories, and Puerto Rico. If you wish to take the ELPT in April, tell your counselor or English as a Second Language (ESL) teacher by February 14, 2003.
Intended Testing Group
Students whose best language is not English; who attend U.S. high schools, or who have studied in an international school where courses are taught in English; have completed two to four years of English language instruction in an English as a Second Language program or in English enrichment courses; and/or students who speak a language other than English at home or work.
Purpose
To assess both your understanding of spoken and written standard American English and how well you will function in a classroom where English is spoken
Format
Listening 17
Reading 50
Listening 33
Scores Required
Total scores on the 901-to-999 scale; listening and reading sub scores on a 1-to-50 scale as well as reading and listening proficiency ratings.
SCORE PATTERN FOR SAT
When the grading of SAT that you have taken is done, a raw score will be calculated for each part (Critical Reading, Writing, and Mathematics). For each of the 67 critical reading questions, you will receive 1 points for a correct; for each incorrect answer, 1/4 of a point is deducted. For example, if you were to answer 58 of the critical reading questions, getting 50 right and 8 wrong, your raw score would be calculated as follows: 50-8(1/4) = 50-2 = 48. Notice that points were neither added nor deducted for the 10 questions you omitted. This raw score is then converted to a scaled score between 200 (the lowest possible grade) and 800 (the highest possible grade).
The same procedure is followed on the writing skills and mathematics parts, except that no deduction is made for incorrect gridlines. Because a deduction is made for incorrect answers, you may think that you should only answer a question if you are sure of the answer. That is a very poor strategy. On average, you will break even by guessing wildly on questions that you don't know how to do or haven't even read, and will come out ahead by guessing anytime that you eliminate one or more of the choices.
For SAT exam, when you receive your score report online or in the mail, you will get only your scaled scores - one for the critical reading part of the exam, one for the writing part, and one for the mathematics part. On each part, the median grade is about 500, meaning that about 50 percent of the students taking the test score below 500, and 50 percent score above 500. On each part, earning only half of the number of points possible will result in a grade above 500. You certainly don't have to answer all, or even most, of the questions to earn a good score. In fact, unless you are in the top 5 percent of all students, and think that you might score over 700 on one of the parts, you shouldn't even attempt to finish the test. Working slowly and carefully will undoubtedly earn you higher scores.
SAT SAMPLE QUESTION
Here Sample questions of SAT are given for you to practice as well as to built concept about the SAT question pattern. This SAT practice paper will help you to score more in SAT exam.
SECTION 1
It is better to be underrated by people than to
be overrated by them.
ASSIGNMENT: What are your thoughts on the statement above? Do you agree or disagree with the writer's assertion? Compose an essay in which you express your views on this topic. Your essay may support, refute, or qualify the view expressed in the statement. What you write, however, must be relevant to the topic under discussion. Additionally, you must support your viewpoint, indicating your reasoning and providing examples based on your studies and/or experience.
SECTION 2
1. In the figure above, what is the value of a?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 28 (D) 36 (E) 45
2. The Rivertown Little League is divided into d divisions. Each division has t teams, and each team has p players. How many players are there in the entire league?
(A) d + t + p (B) dtp (C) pt / d (D) dt / p (E) d / pt
3. What is the value of n if 2n+1 = 32?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8
4. In the figure above, what is the value of a + b + c?
(A) 210 (B) 220 (C) 240 (D) 270 (E) 280
5. The chart above shows the number of tennis
tournaments that Adam entered each year from 1990
through 1995. In what year did he enter 50% more
tournaments than the year before?
6. If, for any number b, b# = b + 1 and #b = b - 1,
which of the following is NOT equal to (3#) (#5)?
20. In the figure above, the legs of
right triangle ACB are diameters of the two
semicircles. If AB = 4 what is the sum of the areas of
the semicircles?
1. Like foolish people who continue to live near an
active volcano, many of us are --- about the --- of
atomic warfare and its attendant destruction.
(A) worried...possibility
(B) unconcerned...threat
(C) excited...power
(D) cheered...possession
(E) irritated...news
2. By communicating through pointing and making gestures, Charles was able to overcome any --- difficulties that arose during his recent trip to Japan.
(A) peripatetic
(B) linguistic
(C) plausible
(D) monetary
(E) territorial
3. In order that future generations may --- the great diversity of animal life, it is the task of the International Wildlife Preservation Commission to prevent endangered species from becoming ---.
(A) recollect...tamed
(B) value...evolved
(C) enjoy...extinct
(D) anticipate...specialize
(E) appreciate...widespread
4. We find it difficult to translate a foreign text literally because we cannot capture the --- of the original passage exactly.
(A) novelty
(B) succinctness
(C) connotations
(D) ambivalence
(E) alienation
5. It is remarkable that a man so in the public eye, so highly praised and imitated, can retain his ---.
(A) magniloquence
(B) dogmas
(C) bravado
(D) idiosyncrasies
(E) humility
6. For all the --- involved in the study of seals, we Arctic researchers have occasional moments of pure --- over some new discovery.
(A) tribulations...despair
(B) hardships...exhilaration
(C) confusions...bewilderment
(D) inconvenience...panic
(E) thrills...delight
7. Despite the growing --- of Hispanic actors in the American theater, many Hispanic experts feel that the Spanish-speaking population is --- on the stage.
(A) decrease...inappropriate
(B) emergence...visible
(C) prominence...underrepresented
(D) skill...alienated
(E) number...misdirected
8. As sportscaster, Cosell was apparently never ---; he made --- comments about every boxing match he covered.
(A) excited...hysterical
(B) relevant...pertinent
(C) satisfied...disparaging
(D) amazed...awe-struck
(E) impressed...laudatory
Questions 9 and 10 are based on the following
passage.
The Rosetta Stone! What a providential find that was. And what a remarkable set of circumstances it took for people to be able to read Egyptian hieroglyphics after a hiatus of some 1400 years. It even took a military campaign. In 1798, Napoleon Bonaparte's army attacked British-held Egypt, seeking to cut off England from the riches of the Middle East. Rebuilding a fortress, a French soldier uncovered a block of basalt inscribed with writing in three distinct scripts; Greek, demotic script (an everyday cursive form of Egyptian), and Egyptian hieroglyphs. At that moment, modern Egyptology began.
9. The primary purpose of lines 1-5 is to
(A) describe the physical attributes of an artifact
(B) underscore the difficulty of translating ancient texts
(C) indicate a new direction for linguistic research
(D) qualify an excessively sweeping generalization
(E) emphasize the unusual background of a discovery
10. The author's tone in writing of the discovery of the Rosetta Stone can best be characterized as
(A) ironic
(B) enthusiastic
(C) condescending
(D) nostalgic
(E) objective
Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage.
A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man recounts the tale of Stephen Dedalus, a sensitive young Dubliner. As a child, he suffers because of his classmates' cruelty, his Jesuit teachers' authoritarianism, and his country's political turmoil. Growing older, Stephen becomes increasingly isolated from his friends, his church, and his country, viewing them all as heartless and hypocritical. Intent on becoming a writer, he eventually concludes he must sever all ties --- family, friends, church, and country---to achieve fulfillment as an artist. The hero must leave Ireland, leave the Church, to set off alone "to forge in the sanity of [his] soul the uncreated conscience of [his] race."
11. The passage as a whole suggests that achieving "fulfillment as an artist" (lines 9-10) might best be characterized as
(A) a modest accomplishment
(B) a worthwhile endeavor
(C) an unrealistic goal
(D) a painful process
(E) a passing phase
12. As used in line 11, the word "forge" most nearly means
(A) counterfeit
(B) fashion
(C) duplicate
(D) alter
(E) melt
Questions 13-24 are based on the following passage.
In this excerpt from a novel, Catherine's Aunt Lavinia comes to make her home with Catherine and her father and becomes involved in Catherine's upbringing.
When the child was about ten years old, he invited his sister, Mrs. Penniman, to come and stay with him. His sister Lavinia had married a poor clergyman, of a sickly constitution and of flowery style of eloquence, and then, at the age of thirty-three, had been left a widow - without children, without fortune - with nothing but the memory of Mr. Penniman's flowers of speech, a certain vague aroma of which hovered about her own conversation. Nevertheless, he had offered her a home under his own roof, which Lavinia accepted with the alacrity of a woman who had spent the ten years of her married life in the town of Poughkeepsie. The doctor had not proposed to Mrs. Penniman to come and live with him indifinitely; he had suggested that she should make an asylum of his house while she looked about for unfurnished lodgings. It is uncertain whether Mrs. Penniman ever instituted a search for unfurnished lodgings, but it is beyond dispute that she never found them. She settled herself with her brother and never went away, and, when Catherine was twenty years old, her Aunt Lavinia was still one of the most striking features of her immediate entourage. Mrs. Penniman's own account of the matter was that she had remained to take charge of her niece's education. She had given this account, at least, to everyone but the Doctor, who never asked for explanations which he could entertain himself any day with inventing. Mrs. Penniman, moreover, though she had a good deal of a certain sort of artificial assurance, shrunk, for indefinable reasons, from presenting herself to her brother as a fountain of instruction. She had not a high sense of humor, but she had enough to prevent her from making this mistake; and her brother, on his side, had enough to excuse her, in her situation, for laying him under contribution during a considerable part of a lifetime. He therefore assented tacitly to the proposition which Mrs. Penniman had tacitly laid down, that it was of importance near her. His assent could only be tacit, for he had never been dazzled by his sister's intellectual luster. Save when he fell in love with Catherine Harrington, he had never been dazzled, indeed, by any feminine characteristics whatever; and though he was to a certain extent what is called a ladies' doctor, his private opinion of the more complicated sex was not exalted. He nevertheless, at the end of six months, accepted his sister's permanent presence as an accomplished fact, and as Catherine grew older, perceived that there were in effect good reasons why she should have a companion of her own imperfect sex. He was extremely polite to Lavinia, scrupulously, formally polite; and she had never seen him in anger but once in her life, when he lost his temper in a theological discussion with her late husband. With her he never discussed theology, nor, indeed, discussed anything; he contented himself with making known, very distinctly in the form of a lucid ultimatum, his wishes with regard to Catherine.
Once, when the girl was about twelve years old, he had said to her - "Try and make a clever woman of her, Lavinia; I should like her to be a clever woman."
Mrs. Penniman, at this, looked thoughtful a moment.
"My dear Austin," She then inquired, "do you think it is better to be clever than to be good?"
From this assertion Mrs. Penniman saw no reason to dissent; she possibly reflected that her own great use in the world was owing to her aptitude for many things.
"Of course I wish Catherine to be good," the Doctor said next day; "but she won't be any the less virtuous for not being a fool. I am not afraid of her being wicked; she will never have the salt of malice in her character. She is 'as good as good bread,' as the French say; but six years hence I don't want to have to compare her to good bread-and-butter."
"Are you afraid she will be insipid? My dear brother, it is I who supply the butter; so you need not fear!" said Mrs. Penniman, who had taken in hand the child's "accomplishments," overlooking her at the piano, where Catherine displayed a certain talent, and going with her to the dancing class, where it must be confessed that she made but a modest figure.
13. The word "constitution" in line 4 means
14. From the description of how Mrs. Penniman came
to live in her brother's home (line 1-12), we may
infer all of the following EXCEPT that
(A) she readily became dependent on her brother
(B) she was married at the age of twenty-three
(C) she was physically delicate and in ill health
(D) she ad not found living in Poughkeepsie particularly gratifying
(E) she occasionally echoed an ornate manner of speech
15. The word "asylum" in line 14 means
16. In the passage the Doctor is portrayed most
specifically as
(A) benevolent and retiring
(B) casual and easy-going
(C) sadly ineffectual
(D) civil but imperious
(E) habitually irate
17. Lines 25-29 introduce which aspect of the Doctor's and Mrs. Penniman's relationship?
(A) Their mutual admiration
(B) the guilt Mrs. Penniman feels about imposing on him
(C) The Doctor's burdensome sense of responsibility
(D) His inability to excuse her shortcomings
(E) Her relative lack of confidence in dealing with him
18. The reason the Doctor gives only tacit assent to Mrs. Penniman's excuse for living with him is that he
(A) actually regrets ever having allowed her to move in
(B) does not believe in his sister's purported brilliance
(C) objects to her taking part in his daughter's education
(D) is unable to reveal the depth of his respect for her
(E) does not wish to embarrass his sister with his praise
19. It can be inferred that the Doctor views children primarily as
(A) a source of joy and comfort in old age
(B) innocent sufferers for the sins of their fathers
(C) clay to be molded into an acceptable image
(D) the chief objective of the married state
(E) their parents' sole chance for immortality
20. The word "reflected" in line 63 means
21. In lines 70 and 71, the Doctor's analogy to
"good bread-and-butter" is used to emphasize
(A) the wholesomeness of Catherine's character
(B) his fear that his daughter may prove virtuous but uninteresting
(C) the discrepancy between Catherine's nature and her education
(D) his hostility toward his sister's notions of proper diet
(E) his appreciation of the simple things in life
22. The word "overlooking" in line 75 means
(A) ignoring
(B) slighting
(C) forgiving
(D) watching over
(E) towering above
23. Mrs. Penniman's opinion of her ability to mold Catherine successfully (lines 72 and 73) can best be described as
(A) characteristically modest
(B) moderately ambivalent
(C) atypically judicious
(D) unrealistically optimistic
(E) cynically dispassionate
24. The remarks about Catherine in the last paragraph reveal her
(A) limited skill as a dancer
(B) virtuosity as a pianist
(C) shyness with her dancing partners
(D) indifference to cleverness
(E) reluctance to practice
SECTION 4
1. In the tennis match Don was paired with Bill;
Ed, with AI.
(A) was paired with Bill; Ed, with AI
(B) was paired with Bill; but Ed was paired with AI
(C) was paired with Bill, and it was Ed with AI
(D) pairing with Bill; Wd being with AI
(E) pairing with Bill; Ed was with AI
2. In the Middle Ages, a lord's intricate wall hangings were more than mere tapestries they were a measure of his consequence and wealth.
(A) mere tapestries they were a measure
(B) merely tapestries they were a measure
(C) mere tapestries and were a measure
(D) mere tapestries; they were a measure
(E) mere tapestries, while they were a measure
3. With the exception of Frank and I, everyone in the class finished the assignment before the bell rang.
(A) Frank and I, everyone in the class finished
(B) Frank and me, everyone in the class finished
(C) Frank and me, everyone in the class had finished
(D) Frank and I, everyone in the class finished
4. The automated teller machine is an efficient device for handling financial transactions; it is sure to be superseded in time, however, when the growth of electronic banking will make it obsolete.
(A) transactions; its sure to be superseded in time, however,
(B) transaction, for it is sure to be superseded in time, however,
(C) transaction; however, surely being superseded in time
(D) transaction, being sure to be superseded in time
(E) transactions; but will be sure to be superseded in time
5. It is possible for a student to do well in class all semester and then you fail because of a poor performance on the final examination.
(A) then you fail
(B) then one fails
(C) then you get a failing grade
(D) later he fails
(E) then to fail
6. Having an exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glenn to participate in a study of the effects of space weightlessness on the human body.
(A) Having and exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glenn
(B) NASA officials who chose 77-year-old John Glenn for his exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique
(C) Based on his exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, 77-year-old John Glenn was chosen by NASA officials
(D) Because his physiques was exceptionally hardy and well-preserved, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glenn
(E) Having an exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials therefore chose 77-year-old John Glenn
7. In addition to being vital to the formation and maintenance of strong bones and teeth, calcium is used by the body in transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones.
(A) calcium is used by the body is transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones
(B) the body uses calcium in transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones
(C) calcium's uses include transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and the production of enzymes and hormones
(D) transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones are ways in which the body is using calcium
(E) in the body calcium being used for transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones
8. As the protest mounted, small skirmishes between students and police that broke out everywhere, flaring up like sudden brush fires on all sides.
(A) skirmishes between student and police that broke
(B) skirmishes between student and police which broke
(C) skirmishes between student and police broke
(D) skirmishes between student and police which were breaking
(E) skirmishes between student and police breaking
9. Great plans for the future were made by Huck and Tom that depended on their finding the gold hidden in the cave.
(A) Great plans for the future were made by Huck and Tom that
(B) Great plans fro the future were made by Huck and Tom which
(C) Huck and Tom, who made great plans for the future that
(D) Huck and Tom made great plans for the future that
(E) Great plans for the future were being made by Huck and Tom that
10. Many classic recordings have been reissued in compact disc format, some perennial favorites have not.
(A) Many classic recordings have been reissued
(B) Many classic recordings have reissued
(C) Many a classic recording have been reissued
(D) Despite many classic recordings which have been reissued
(E) Although many classic recordings have been reissued
11. Although now engaged in writing background music for television show, his next musical project will be to compose a symphony in memory of the Challenger crew.
(A) his next musical project will be to compose a symphony
(B) the next musical project he will undertake will be the composition of a symphony
(C) he will next compose a symphony
(D) therefore the will next compose a symphony
(E) his next musical project will be the composition of a symphony
12. It was reported that the identities
of them to be called as witnesses would be
released on Tuesday by the district attorney.
No error
13. The ad stated that a piano was needed for the school play in good condition. No error
14. The fishing fleet left the harbor when the fisherman heard that a school of bluefish were near the wreak. No error
15. In consideration about his ling service to the theater, the Tony Awards committee made a special presentation honoring producer George Abbott, who had recently celebrated his hundredth birthday. No error
16. A minority group comprising 30% of the community and represented by only one member out of 25 on the City Council. No error
17. In spite of a superficial simplicity, there are many aspects of the prose style of Ernest Hemingway that would be profitable subjects for further study. No error
18. Among George, Henry, and I, there can be no secrets. No error
19. Neither the reporters nor the editor were satisfied with the salary offer made by the publisher. No error
20. The workers who I see the subway every afternoon seem tired and dejected. No error
21. The article was rejected because of its length, verbosity, and it presented only one point of view. No error
22. Mr. Jones's decision to retire came as a shock to all who respected his ability. No error
23. When she spoke with the police, she reported her loss; she states that a large quantity of clothing and of valuable jewelry were missing. No error
24. Between the small shops and boutiques of Greenwich village and the giant department stores of midtown Manhattan lie the ethnically varied residential neighborhood of Chelsea. No error
25. Bailing vigorously, we managed to remain afloat until we were rescued by the Coast Guard. No error
26. We had ought to finish out trip before dark because it gets very cold after the sun goes down. No error
27. Does that remark infer that you are displeased with the way I am managing the business? No error
28. The success of recent Victorian art exhibitions in London, Paris, and New York illustrate a shift in both scholarly assessment and public taste. No error
29. Just as some teenagers adore video games, so others condemn it as a utter waste of time. No error
[1] Teenagers under eighteen can now receive a
major credit card as long as the credit card's use is
supervised by a parent or guardian. [2] This is a good
idea since it gives these teenagers the responsibility
of managing their money. [3] Another is because
teenagers can develop good habits of spending that
will be useful later in life.
[4] A teenagers can legally hold a job at age sixteen. [5] This means that many teenagers have a steady income, which they should be able to spend as they wish. [6] Being in control of their own finances not only teaches them the value of money but how to spend it wisely.
[7] An example of a teenager with a credit card is Bonita Robbins. [8] Bonita is a junior in high school. [9] She is seventeen years old. [10] She works after school in a real estate office. [11] She earns about $100 a week. [12] After three months of work she applied for a credit card. [13] Her bank gave her one but said that there will be a "trial period" in which her parent will be responsible. [14] Most of the time Bonita paid her bills punctually and on time. [15] However, during one month Bonita charged more than she could pay, so her parents loaned her the money. [16] The next month Bonita saved her income and paid it back. [17] This was a good lesson for Bonita, because next time she'll probably be more careful about spending money.
[18] This plan also lets the parents and the teenagers plan how the credit card will be used. [19] teenagers might use the card freely to buy things for less that $25. [20] For items costing more, talk to your parents before buying them. [21] Parents could help their teenager to plan a budget or set priorities for spending money. [22] Since parents are going to assume responsibility for the card's use or abuse, they will way to have some input on how it will be used.
30. Which is the best revision of the underlined segment of sentence 3 below?
Another is because teenagers can develop good habits of spending that will be useful later in life.
(A) reason is because teenagers develop
(B) reason is that teenagers may develop
(C) idea is due to the fact that teenagers may develop
(D) may come about due to teenagers' developing
(E) idea may be because teenagers develop
31. Given the context of paragraph 3, which revision of sentences 8, 9, 10, and 11 is the most effective?
(A) Bonita, a junior in high school, earning about $100 a week by working after school in a real estate office, is seventh years old.
(B) As a junior in high school and being seventeen, she works after school in a real estate office, earns about $100 a week.
(C) A seventh-year-old high school junior, she earns $100 a week at an after-school job in a real office.
(D) Bonita Robbins earns office; she is seventeen and is a high school junior.
(E) Being a junior in high school, Bonita, seventeen years old, earning about $100 a week in a real estate office at an after-school job.
32. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 14?
(A) Bills were paid punctually.
(B) Usually Bonita had paid her bills on time.
(C) Most of the time the bills were paid by Bonita on time.
(D) Usually Bonita paid her bills punctually and on time.
(E) Usually Bonita paid her bills when they were due.
33. With regard to the whole essay, which of the following best describes the function of paragraph 3?
(A) To summarize the discussion presented in earlier paragraphs
(B) To persuade readers to change their point of view
(C) To provide an example
(D) To ridicule an idea presented earlier in the essay
(E) To draw a conclusion
34. Which revision of the underlined segment of sentence 18 below provides the best transition between the third and fourth paragraphs?
This plan also lets the parents and the teenagers plan how the credit card will be used.
(A) Another advantage of this plan is that it
(B) Another advantage of "trial" credit card program like Bonita's is that it
(C) A different advantage to Bonita's experience
(D) All of a sudden, it
(E) Together, it
35. In the context of the fourth paragraph, which is the best revision of sentence 20?
(A) Before buying items worth more teenagers might consult a parent.
(B) Teenagers should be talking to their parents before buying something that costs more that $25.
(C) But first talking about things costing more than $25 between parents and teenagers.
(D) First teenagers and parents must talk before buying something that costs more than $25.
(E) Buying something that costs more than $25 to purchase must be talked over between parents and teenagers beforehand.
The questions on remaining sections 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 are similar to the section 1, 2, and 3.
ADVICE AND INFORMATION FOR SAT
SAT - BRIEF INFORMATION
The College Entrance Examination Board, now commonly known as the College Board, administered the first Scholastic Aptitude Test in June 1926 to 8,040 mostly male and probably all-white candidates. They were applying to private colleges, mainly in the Northeast. In the 2000-2001 test year, more than 2.1 million young men and women took the SAT I: Reasoning Test as part of the admissions process for more than 1,000 private and public institutions of higher education, 80 percent of the national total.
Much of the 1926 SAT exam resembled its modern counterpart. It included analogies, reading comprehension, and arithmetic. But the time limits differed. The verbal section of the 1926 version had 245 verbal questions, to be answered in 82 minutes or 20 seconds per item. The current verbal section, in contrast, gives students 75 minutes to answer 78 questions, or 58 seconds per item. The time limit difference between the 1926 and present math sections are also notable.
The format of the SAT has also changed. The verbal and math sections were not scored separately until l931. This was done to allow college admissions staff to weigh students' scores according to the college's curriculum. Mathematics questions were eliminated and then reappeared during the first two decades of the test.
.
National SAT scores rose to their highest levels in 1963. In the 1970s, the College Board conducted 38 studies and assembled a panel to learn the causes of the subsequent steady decline in scores. The Board's conclusions noted the changing composition of the college-bound population, lower school standards, and changing mores that affected students' motivation to learn.
In recent decades, the College Board modified the SAT to account for test-takers' different cultural and educational backgrounds, and to improve the reliability of test performance measures. In 1994, antonyms were eliminated, the verbal section contained a greater emphasis on reading, non-multiple-choice questions appeared on the math section, and calculators were permitted.
Despite the great changes in American society since the SAT was first administered, the College Board's aims held: to provide educational institutions with an honest measure of American students' abilities. To remain true to the College Board's founding principles, the SAT has been adapted to reflect the needs of students and the colleges they are preparing to enter. This is part of a larger procession of change toward greater access and equity in the American educational system.
SAT
Preparation Tips
SAT is a standardized test required for admission to undergraduate programs in USA.
The instructions on the exam are always exactly the same. Learn them beforehand. That way you won’t waste time reading them on test day.
Keep your answer sheet clean
It sounds simple, but it is extremely important not to make mistakes filling out the answer grid. When time is short, it is easy to get confused going back and forth. But if you do, your answers will be wrong. It is smarter to grid the answers in-groups rather than one question at a time. This is how it works: Circle your answer to each question in the booklet as you figure it out. Then transfer those answers to the answer grid in groups of five or more (until you get close to the end of a section, when you should grid in answers one by one- it will help you avoid running out of time.
Don't jump to conclusions
To separate the high-scoring students from the rest of the pack, the SAT test makers purposely include tempting wrong answer choices as traps. The surest way to avoid falling for traps is to predict the answer before you look at the answer choices. For example, if you are answering an SAT sentence Completion, don’t just jump into the answer choices to see which one fits. Instead, read the sentence, predict the missing word, and then scan the answer choices to see which one matches.
Best
books for SAT preparation
Most of the books and CD's available in the market are designed for US students. They focus more on problems faced by American students rather than International students. Some of the popular books are:
10 Real SAT's (US $17.95)
The book from the makers of SAT. It is the only book which offers real SAT questions and practice tests.
One-on-One with the SAT (Compact Disc) (US $29.95)
A practice tutorial and test series from College Board for students who are more comfortable with the computer.
The salient features are:
Even though each new SAT is constructed to meet precise content and statistical specifications, some minor differences may occur between different editions of the test. For example, some forms might be slightly more difficult or easier than others and the ability level of test-takers varies at different administrations. However, the equating portion of the SAT equalizes these differences and ensures the continuing comparability of all SAT scores.
Preparations
The best ways to get ready for the SAT I are to take challenging academic courses and to read widely outside school throughout your school years. Taking the PSAT/NMSQT® is another excellent way to get ready.
Preparation for the SAT II: Subject Tests varies for each test. For example, some Subject Tests (such as American History, Biology E/M, Chemistry, Physics) are best taken as soon as the course ends so the information is still fresh in your mind. You'll do better on other tests, like Writing and the language tests, after several years of study.
Before taking the SAT I: Reasoning Test or the SAT II: Subject Tests, familiarize yourself with the organization of the test, the types of questions that are included, and what to expect on test day.
The registration fee for the SAT is $41.50.
Because the fees for SAT Subject Tests differ, an $18 basic fee is added to the total for all subjects taken, and it covers sending score reports to up to four colleges and scholarship programs.
Additional service fees for the Question-and-Answer Service (QAS) and the Student Answer Service (SAS) are refundable. The fee for each additional score report is also refundable. Payment must be made in U.S. dollars.
Mode
of payment:
Registering for SAT
1. By Fax (Credit Card required): Fill up the form and write your credit card number in the space provided and fax the form to : 001 609 683 1234. Please don't forget to add $5 extra to the test fee for fax registration.
2. Online Registration (Credit Card required): Fill up the form online and mention your credit card number. This is the easiest way to register for SAT
The Scholastic Aptitude Test
is a Standardized test that measures verbal,
mathematical and analytical skills. It is intended to
help the graduate schools (of all fields other than
business) assess the potential of applicants for
advanced study. The Board
is a national nonprofit membership association whose
mission is to prepare, inspire, and connect students
to college and opportunity, with a commitment to
excellence and equity. The Board is composed of more
than 4,200 schools, colleges, universities, and other
educational organizations. Each year, the College
Board serves more than three million students and
their parents, 22,000 high schools, and 3,500 colleges
through major programs and services in college
admissions, guidance, assessment, financial aid,
enrollment, and teaching and learning. A board of
trustees composed of 31 members, seven of whom are ex
officio, governs the College Board. The SAT is given
seven times a year at thousands of testing centers
throughout the world. Most students take the SAT during their junior or senior year of high school. About half the students who take the SAT do so twice in the spring of their junior year and fall of their senior year. Today, nearly 80 percent of four-year colleges and universities use test scores in admissions decisions. Research has repeatedly demonstrated that the best way to predict freshman year grade point average is to use a combination of SAT scores and the high school grade point average.
SAT TEST MODULES
Duration: 3 hours, 45 minutes
There are 3 sections Critical Reading, Math and Writing sections (200-800 points/section)
The SAT measures general scholastic aptitude in three areas: critical reading, quantitative reasoning, and writing.
The Critical Reading Section (formerly known as the verbal section) has two question types: sentence completions and reading comprehension questions. Within the reading comprehension section, there are both long reading passages and short (one paragraph) reading passage questions. All questions are multiple choice with five answer choices.
The Quantitative Section has two types of questions: multiple choice and "grid-ins," which have an answer grid that allows you to enter any four-digit number. These questions cover four main topic areas: arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and mathematical logic.
The Writing Section of the SAT exam consists of two parts: a student-written essay section, in which you'll be asked to write a short essay (25 minutes), and multiple choice questions (35 minutes) that will measure your ability to identify grammatical errors and improve sentences or paragraphs.
ELPT
The English Language Proficiency Test (ELPT) is going to be offered on November 2, 2002, and January 25, 2003 at designated test centers, and on April 22, 2003 at participating schools in the U.S., U.S. territories, and Puerto Rico. If you wish to take the ELPT in April, tell your counselor or English as a Second Language (ESL) teacher by February 14, 2003.
Intended Testing Group
Students whose best language is not English; who attend U.S. high schools, or who have studied in an international school where courses are taught in English; have completed two to four years of English language instruction in an English as a Second Language program or in English enrichment courses; and/or students who speak a language other than English at home or work.
Purpose
To assess both your understanding of spoken and written standard American English and how well you will function in a classroom where English is spoken
Format
- 84 multiple-choice questions that concentrate on practical and academic use of English
- Test time is one hour (about 30 minutes listening and 30 minutes reading)
- Two listening sections: one testing your ability to identify an appropriate continuation of a short conversation, and another requiring you to answer questions based on short dialogues, announcements, and narratives
- One reading comprehension section that tests your ability to read prose passages from published materials as well as everyday materials such as advertisements, timetables, signs, and forms
Listening 17
Reading 50
Listening 33
Scores Required
Total scores on the 901-to-999 scale; listening and reading sub scores on a 1-to-50 scale as well as reading and listening proficiency ratings.
SCORE PATTERN FOR SAT
When the grading of SAT that you have taken is done, a raw score will be calculated for each part (Critical Reading, Writing, and Mathematics). For each of the 67 critical reading questions, you will receive 1 points for a correct; for each incorrect answer, 1/4 of a point is deducted. For example, if you were to answer 58 of the critical reading questions, getting 50 right and 8 wrong, your raw score would be calculated as follows: 50-8(1/4) = 50-2 = 48. Notice that points were neither added nor deducted for the 10 questions you omitted. This raw score is then converted to a scaled score between 200 (the lowest possible grade) and 800 (the highest possible grade).
The same procedure is followed on the writing skills and mathematics parts, except that no deduction is made for incorrect gridlines. Because a deduction is made for incorrect answers, you may think that you should only answer a question if you are sure of the answer. That is a very poor strategy. On average, you will break even by guessing wildly on questions that you don't know how to do or haven't even read, and will come out ahead by guessing anytime that you eliminate one or more of the choices.
For SAT exam, when you receive your score report online or in the mail, you will get only your scaled scores - one for the critical reading part of the exam, one for the writing part, and one for the mathematics part. On each part, the median grade is about 500, meaning that about 50 percent of the students taking the test score below 500, and 50 percent score above 500. On each part, earning only half of the number of points possible will result in a grade above 500. You certainly don't have to answer all, or even most, of the questions to earn a good score. In fact, unless you are in the top 5 percent of all students, and think that you might score over 700 on one of the parts, you shouldn't even attempt to finish the test. Working slowly and carefully will undoubtedly earn you higher scores.
SAT SAMPLE QUESTION
Here Sample questions of SAT are given for you to practice as well as to built concept about the SAT question pattern. This SAT practice paper will help you to score more in SAT exam.
SECTION 1
ESSAY
Time allowed: 25 Minutes
Time allowed: 25 Minutes
Turn to your answer sheet and write
your essay on the lined portion of the page. To
receive credit, you must write your essay in the area
provided.
Write on the assigned topic below. If
you write on any other topic, your essay will be given
a score of zero.
Write or print legible: your readers
will be unfamiliar with your handwriting, and you want
them to be able to read what you write.
| The statement below makes a point about a particular topic. Read the statement carefully, and think about the assignment that follow. |
ASSIGNMENT: What are your thoughts on the statement above? Do you agree or disagree with the writer's assertion? Compose an essay in which you express your views on this topic. Your essay may support, refute, or qualify the view expressed in the statement. What you write, however, must be relevant to the topic under discussion. Additionally, you must support your viewpoint, indicating your reasoning and providing examples based on your studies and/or experience.
SECTION 2
20 Questions--25 Minutes
| For each problem in this section determine which of the five choices is correct and blacken the corresponding choice on your answer sheet. You may use any blank space on the page for your work. |
Notes:
|
|
Reference Information
  |
1. In the figure above, what is the value of a?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 28 (D) 36 (E) 45
2. The Rivertown Little League is divided into d divisions. Each division has t teams, and each team has p players. How many players are there in the entire league?
(A) d + t + p (B) dtp (C) pt / d (D) dt / p (E) d / pt
3. What is the value of n if 2n+1 = 32?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8
4. In the figure above, what is the value of a + b + c?
(A) 210 (B) 220 (C) 240 (D) 270 (E) 280
| Year | 1990 | 1991 | 1992 | 1993 | 1994 | 1995 |
| Number of tournaments | 4 | 5 | 10 | 6 | 9 | 12 |
| (A) 1991 | (B) 1992 | (C) 1993 | (D) 1994 | (E) 1995 |
| (A) (1#) (#9) | (B) 7# + #9 | (C) (4#) (#4) | (D) (7#) (#3) |
| (E) 15# / #2 |
7. If a is a multiple of 5 and
b = 5a, which of the following could be the value of a
+ b?
I. 60
II. 100
III. 150
I. 60
II. 100
III. 150
(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
8. If 3a = b and 3c
= d, then bd =
| (A) 3ac | (B) 3a + c | (C) 6a + c | (D) 9ac | (E) 9a+c |
9. If r and s are two
nonzero numbers and if 78(r + s) = (78 + r)s, then
which of the following must be true?
| (A) r = 78 | (B) s = 78 | (C) r + s = rs | (D) r < 1 | (E) s < 1 |
10. If it is now June, what month will
it be 100 months from now?
| (A) January | (B) April | (C) June | (D) October | (E) December |
11. If the average (arithmetic mean)
of three consecutive integers is A, which of the
following must be true?
I. One of the numbers is equal to A.
II. The average of two of the three numbers is A.
III. A is an integer
I. One of the numbers is equal to A.
II. The average of two of the three numbers is A.
III. A is an integer
| (A) I only | (B) II only | (C) III only | (D) I and II only |
| (E) I, II, and III |
12. A bag contains 25 slips of paper,
on each of which a different integer from 1 to 25 is
written. Blindfolded, Scott draws one of the slips of
paper. He wins if the number on the slip he draws is a
multiple of 3 or 5. What is the probability that Scott
wins?
| (A) 1 / 25 | (B) 8 / 25 | (C) 11 / 25 | (D) 12 / 25 | (E) 13 / 25 |
13. If m2 = 17, then what is the value
of (m + 1) (m - 1)?
| (A) √17 - 1 | (B) √17 + 1 | (C) 16 | (D) 18 | (E) 288 |
14. Which of the following points lies
in the interior of the circle whose radius is 10 and
whose center is at the origin?
| (A) (-9, 4) | (B) (5, -9) | (C) (0, -10) | (D) (10, -1) | (E) (-6, 8) |
15. Several shoppers were surveyed at
a supermarket and asked how many people were in their
families and how much money they spend each week on
food. The data were graphed in the following
scatterplot diagram.
If the average weekly cost of food per
person for each of the seven families, A - G, was
calculated, which one would be the median?
| (A) A | (B) C | (C) D | (D) E | (E) G |
16. If p pencils cost c
cents, how many pencils can be bought for d
dollars?
| (A) cdp | (B) 100cdp | (C) dp / 100c | (D) 100cd / p | (E) 100dp / c |
17. If a is increased by 10%
and b is decreased by 10%, the resulting
numbers will be equal. What is the ratio of a
to b?
| (A) 9 /11 | (B) 9 / 10 | (C) 1 / 1 | (D) 10 / 9 | (E) 11 / 9 |
18. In the figure at the right, line
segments AF
and CF
partition pentagon ABCDE into a rectangle and two
triangles. For which of the following can the value be
determined?
I. a + b
II. b + c
III. a + b + c + d
I. a + b
II. b + c
III. a + b + c + d
(A) II only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
19. Which of the following CANNOT be
expressed as the sum of two or more consecutive
positive integers?
| (A) 17 | (B) 22 | (C) 24 | (D) 26 | (E) 32 |
| (A) π | (B) 2π | (C) 4π | (D) 8π | (E) 16π |
SECTION 3
24 Questions--25 Minutes
| Select the best answer to each of the following questions; then blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet. |
| Each of the following sentences
contains one or two blanks; each blank indicates
that a word or set of words has been left out.
Below the sentence are five words or phrases,
lettered A through E. Select the word or set of
words that best completes the sentence.
Example: Fame is ---------; today's rising star is all too soon tomorrow's washed-up has been. (A) rewarding (B) gradual (C) essential (D) spontaneous (E) transitory |
(A) worried...possibility
(B) unconcerned...threat
(C) excited...power
(D) cheered...possession
(E) irritated...news
2. By communicating through pointing and making gestures, Charles was able to overcome any --- difficulties that arose during his recent trip to Japan.
(A) peripatetic
(B) linguistic
(C) plausible
(D) monetary
(E) territorial
3. In order that future generations may --- the great diversity of animal life, it is the task of the International Wildlife Preservation Commission to prevent endangered species from becoming ---.
(A) recollect...tamed
(B) value...evolved
(C) enjoy...extinct
(D) anticipate...specialize
(E) appreciate...widespread
4. We find it difficult to translate a foreign text literally because we cannot capture the --- of the original passage exactly.
(A) novelty
(B) succinctness
(C) connotations
(D) ambivalence
(E) alienation
5. It is remarkable that a man so in the public eye, so highly praised and imitated, can retain his ---.
(A) magniloquence
(B) dogmas
(C) bravado
(D) idiosyncrasies
(E) humility
6. For all the --- involved in the study of seals, we Arctic researchers have occasional moments of pure --- over some new discovery.
(A) tribulations...despair
(B) hardships...exhilaration
(C) confusions...bewilderment
(D) inconvenience...panic
(E) thrills...delight
7. Despite the growing --- of Hispanic actors in the American theater, many Hispanic experts feel that the Spanish-speaking population is --- on the stage.
(A) decrease...inappropriate
(B) emergence...visible
(C) prominence...underrepresented
(D) skill...alienated
(E) number...misdirected
8. As sportscaster, Cosell was apparently never ---; he made --- comments about every boxing match he covered.
(A) excited...hysterical
(B) relevant...pertinent
(C) satisfied...disparaging
(D) amazed...awe-struck
(E) impressed...laudatory
| Read each passage below, and then answer the questions that follow the passage. The correct response may be stated outright or merely suggested in the passage. |
The Rosetta Stone! What a providential find that was. And what a remarkable set of circumstances it took for people to be able to read Egyptian hieroglyphics after a hiatus of some 1400 years. It even took a military campaign. In 1798, Napoleon Bonaparte's army attacked British-held Egypt, seeking to cut off England from the riches of the Middle East. Rebuilding a fortress, a French soldier uncovered a block of basalt inscribed with writing in three distinct scripts; Greek, demotic script (an everyday cursive form of Egyptian), and Egyptian hieroglyphs. At that moment, modern Egyptology began.
9. The primary purpose of lines 1-5 is to
(A) describe the physical attributes of an artifact
(B) underscore the difficulty of translating ancient texts
(C) indicate a new direction for linguistic research
(D) qualify an excessively sweeping generalization
(E) emphasize the unusual background of a discovery
10. The author's tone in writing of the discovery of the Rosetta Stone can best be characterized as
(A) ironic
(B) enthusiastic
(C) condescending
(D) nostalgic
(E) objective
Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage.
A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man recounts the tale of Stephen Dedalus, a sensitive young Dubliner. As a child, he suffers because of his classmates' cruelty, his Jesuit teachers' authoritarianism, and his country's political turmoil. Growing older, Stephen becomes increasingly isolated from his friends, his church, and his country, viewing them all as heartless and hypocritical. Intent on becoming a writer, he eventually concludes he must sever all ties --- family, friends, church, and country---to achieve fulfillment as an artist. The hero must leave Ireland, leave the Church, to set off alone "to forge in the sanity of [his] soul the uncreated conscience of [his] race."
11. The passage as a whole suggests that achieving "fulfillment as an artist" (lines 9-10) might best be characterized as
(A) a modest accomplishment
(B) a worthwhile endeavor
(C) an unrealistic goal
(D) a painful process
(E) a passing phase
12. As used in line 11, the word "forge" most nearly means
(A) counterfeit
(B) fashion
(C) duplicate
(D) alter
(E) melt
Questions 13-24 are based on the following passage.
In this excerpt from a novel, Catherine's Aunt Lavinia comes to make her home with Catherine and her father and becomes involved in Catherine's upbringing.
When the child was about ten years old, he invited his sister, Mrs. Penniman, to come and stay with him. His sister Lavinia had married a poor clergyman, of a sickly constitution and of flowery style of eloquence, and then, at the age of thirty-three, had been left a widow - without children, without fortune - with nothing but the memory of Mr. Penniman's flowers of speech, a certain vague aroma of which hovered about her own conversation. Nevertheless, he had offered her a home under his own roof, which Lavinia accepted with the alacrity of a woman who had spent the ten years of her married life in the town of Poughkeepsie. The doctor had not proposed to Mrs. Penniman to come and live with him indifinitely; he had suggested that she should make an asylum of his house while she looked about for unfurnished lodgings. It is uncertain whether Mrs. Penniman ever instituted a search for unfurnished lodgings, but it is beyond dispute that she never found them. She settled herself with her brother and never went away, and, when Catherine was twenty years old, her Aunt Lavinia was still one of the most striking features of her immediate entourage. Mrs. Penniman's own account of the matter was that she had remained to take charge of her niece's education. She had given this account, at least, to everyone but the Doctor, who never asked for explanations which he could entertain himself any day with inventing. Mrs. Penniman, moreover, though she had a good deal of a certain sort of artificial assurance, shrunk, for indefinable reasons, from presenting herself to her brother as a fountain of instruction. She had not a high sense of humor, but she had enough to prevent her from making this mistake; and her brother, on his side, had enough to excuse her, in her situation, for laying him under contribution during a considerable part of a lifetime. He therefore assented tacitly to the proposition which Mrs. Penniman had tacitly laid down, that it was of importance near her. His assent could only be tacit, for he had never been dazzled by his sister's intellectual luster. Save when he fell in love with Catherine Harrington, he had never been dazzled, indeed, by any feminine characteristics whatever; and though he was to a certain extent what is called a ladies' doctor, his private opinion of the more complicated sex was not exalted. He nevertheless, at the end of six months, accepted his sister's permanent presence as an accomplished fact, and as Catherine grew older, perceived that there were in effect good reasons why she should have a companion of her own imperfect sex. He was extremely polite to Lavinia, scrupulously, formally polite; and she had never seen him in anger but once in her life, when he lost his temper in a theological discussion with her late husband. With her he never discussed theology, nor, indeed, discussed anything; he contented himself with making known, very distinctly in the form of a lucid ultimatum, his wishes with regard to Catherine.
Once, when the girl was about twelve years old, he had said to her - "Try and make a clever woman of her, Lavinia; I should like her to be a clever woman."
Mrs. Penniman, at this, looked thoughtful a moment.
"My dear Austin," She then inquired, "do you think it is better to be clever than to be good?"
From this assertion Mrs. Penniman saw no reason to dissent; she possibly reflected that her own great use in the world was owing to her aptitude for many things.
"Of course I wish Catherine to be good," the Doctor said next day; "but she won't be any the less virtuous for not being a fool. I am not afraid of her being wicked; she will never have the salt of malice in her character. She is 'as good as good bread,' as the French say; but six years hence I don't want to have to compare her to good bread-and-butter."
"Are you afraid she will be insipid? My dear brother, it is I who supply the butter; so you need not fear!" said Mrs. Penniman, who had taken in hand the child's "accomplishments," overlooking her at the piano, where Catherine displayed a certain talent, and going with her to the dancing class, where it must be confessed that she made but a modest figure.
13. The word "constitution" in line 4 means
| (A) establishment | (B) charter | (C) ambience | (D) physique | (E) wit |
(A) she readily became dependent on her brother
(B) she was married at the age of twenty-three
(C) she was physically delicate and in ill health
(D) she ad not found living in Poughkeepsie particularly gratifying
(E) she occasionally echoed an ornate manner of speech
15. The word "asylum" in line 14 means
| (A) institution | (B) sanitarium | (C) refuge | (D) sanction | (E) shambles |
(A) benevolent and retiring
(B) casual and easy-going
(C) sadly ineffectual
(D) civil but imperious
(E) habitually irate
17. Lines 25-29 introduce which aspect of the Doctor's and Mrs. Penniman's relationship?
(A) Their mutual admiration
(B) the guilt Mrs. Penniman feels about imposing on him
(C) The Doctor's burdensome sense of responsibility
(D) His inability to excuse her shortcomings
(E) Her relative lack of confidence in dealing with him
18. The reason the Doctor gives only tacit assent to Mrs. Penniman's excuse for living with him is that he
(A) actually regrets ever having allowed her to move in
(B) does not believe in his sister's purported brilliance
(C) objects to her taking part in his daughter's education
(D) is unable to reveal the depth of his respect for her
(E) does not wish to embarrass his sister with his praise
19. It can be inferred that the Doctor views children primarily as
(A) a source of joy and comfort in old age
(B) innocent sufferers for the sins of their fathers
(C) clay to be molded into an acceptable image
(D) the chief objective of the married state
(E) their parents' sole chance for immortality
20. The word "reflected" in line 63 means
| (A) mirrored | (B) glittered | (C) considered | (D) indicated |
| (E) reproduced |
(A) the wholesomeness of Catherine's character
(B) his fear that his daughter may prove virtuous but uninteresting
(C) the discrepancy between Catherine's nature and her education
(D) his hostility toward his sister's notions of proper diet
(E) his appreciation of the simple things in life
22. The word "overlooking" in line 75 means
(A) ignoring
(B) slighting
(C) forgiving
(D) watching over
(E) towering above
23. Mrs. Penniman's opinion of her ability to mold Catherine successfully (lines 72 and 73) can best be described as
(A) characteristically modest
(B) moderately ambivalent
(C) atypically judicious
(D) unrealistically optimistic
(E) cynically dispassionate
24. The remarks about Catherine in the last paragraph reveal her
(A) limited skill as a dancer
(B) virtuosity as a pianist
(C) shyness with her dancing partners
(D) indifference to cleverness
(E) reluctance to practice
SECTION 4
35 Questions - 25 Minutes
| Select the best answer to each of the following questions; then blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet. |
| Some or all parts of the
following sentences are underlines. The first
answer choice, (A), simply repeats the underlined
part of the sentence. The other four choices
present four alternative ways to phrase the
underlined part. Select the answer that produces
the most effective sentence, one that is clear and
exact, and blacken the appropriate space on your
answer sheet. In selecting your choice, be sure
that it is standard written English, and that is
expresses the meaning of the original sentence.
Example: The first biography of author Eudora Welty came out in 1998 and she was 89 years old at the time. (A) and she was 89 years old at the time (B) at the time when she was 89 (C) upon becoming an 89 year old (D) when she was 89 (E) at the age of 89 years old |
(A) was paired with Bill; Ed, with AI
(B) was paired with Bill; but Ed was paired with AI
(C) was paired with Bill, and it was Ed with AI
(D) pairing with Bill; Wd being with AI
(E) pairing with Bill; Ed was with AI
2. In the Middle Ages, a lord's intricate wall hangings were more than mere tapestries they were a measure of his consequence and wealth.
(A) mere tapestries they were a measure
(B) merely tapestries they were a measure
(C) mere tapestries and were a measure
(D) mere tapestries; they were a measure
(E) mere tapestries, while they were a measure
3. With the exception of Frank and I, everyone in the class finished the assignment before the bell rang.
(A) Frank and I, everyone in the class finished
(B) Frank and me, everyone in the class finished
(C) Frank and me, everyone in the class had finished
(D) Frank and I, everyone in the class finished
4. The automated teller machine is an efficient device for handling financial transactions; it is sure to be superseded in time, however, when the growth of electronic banking will make it obsolete.
(A) transactions; its sure to be superseded in time, however,
(B) transaction, for it is sure to be superseded in time, however,
(C) transaction; however, surely being superseded in time
(D) transaction, being sure to be superseded in time
(E) transactions; but will be sure to be superseded in time
5. It is possible for a student to do well in class all semester and then you fail because of a poor performance on the final examination.
(A) then you fail
(B) then one fails
(C) then you get a failing grade
(D) later he fails
(E) then to fail
6. Having an exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glenn to participate in a study of the effects of space weightlessness on the human body.
(A) Having and exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glenn
(B) NASA officials who chose 77-year-old John Glenn for his exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique
(C) Based on his exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, 77-year-old John Glenn was chosen by NASA officials
(D) Because his physiques was exceptionally hardy and well-preserved, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glenn
(E) Having an exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials therefore chose 77-year-old John Glenn
7. In addition to being vital to the formation and maintenance of strong bones and teeth, calcium is used by the body in transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones.
(A) calcium is used by the body is transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones
(B) the body uses calcium in transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones
(C) calcium's uses include transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and the production of enzymes and hormones
(D) transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones are ways in which the body is using calcium
(E) in the body calcium being used for transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones
8. As the protest mounted, small skirmishes between students and police that broke out everywhere, flaring up like sudden brush fires on all sides.
(A) skirmishes between student and police that broke
(B) skirmishes between student and police which broke
(C) skirmishes between student and police broke
(D) skirmishes between student and police which were breaking
(E) skirmishes between student and police breaking
9. Great plans for the future were made by Huck and Tom that depended on their finding the gold hidden in the cave.
(A) Great plans for the future were made by Huck and Tom that
(B) Great plans fro the future were made by Huck and Tom which
(C) Huck and Tom, who made great plans for the future that
(D) Huck and Tom made great plans for the future that
(E) Great plans for the future were being made by Huck and Tom that
10. Many classic recordings have been reissued in compact disc format, some perennial favorites have not.
(A) Many classic recordings have been reissued
(B) Many classic recordings have reissued
(C) Many a classic recording have been reissued
(D) Despite many classic recordings which have been reissued
(E) Although many classic recordings have been reissued
11. Although now engaged in writing background music for television show, his next musical project will be to compose a symphony in memory of the Challenger crew.
(A) his next musical project will be to compose a symphony
(B) the next musical project he will undertake will be the composition of a symphony
(C) he will next compose a symphony
(D) therefore the will next compose a symphony
(E) his next musical project will be the composition of a symphony
| The sentences in this section
may contain errors in grammar, usage, choice of
words, or idioms. Either there is just one error
in a sentence or the sentence is correct. Some
words or phrases are underlined and lettered;
everything else in the sentence is correct.
If an underlined word or phrase is incorrect,
choose that letter; if the sentence is correct,
select No error. Then blacken the
appropriate space on your answer sheet. Example: The region has a climate so severe that plants growing there rarely had been more than twelve inches high. No error |
13. The ad stated that a piano was needed for the school play in good condition. No error
14. The fishing fleet left the harbor when the fisherman heard that a school of bluefish were near the wreak. No error
15. In consideration about his ling service to the theater, the Tony Awards committee made a special presentation honoring producer George Abbott, who had recently celebrated his hundredth birthday. No error
16. A minority group comprising 30% of the community and represented by only one member out of 25 on the City Council. No error
17. In spite of a superficial simplicity, there are many aspects of the prose style of Ernest Hemingway that would be profitable subjects for further study. No error
18. Among George, Henry, and I, there can be no secrets. No error
19. Neither the reporters nor the editor were satisfied with the salary offer made by the publisher. No error
20. The workers who I see the subway every afternoon seem tired and dejected. No error
21. The article was rejected because of its length, verbosity, and it presented only one point of view. No error
22. Mr. Jones's decision to retire came as a shock to all who respected his ability. No error
23. When she spoke with the police, she reported her loss; she states that a large quantity of clothing and of valuable jewelry were missing. No error
24. Between the small shops and boutiques of Greenwich village and the giant department stores of midtown Manhattan lie the ethnically varied residential neighborhood of Chelsea. No error
25. Bailing vigorously, we managed to remain afloat until we were rescued by the Coast Guard. No error
26. We had ought to finish out trip before dark because it gets very cold after the sun goes down. No error
27. Does that remark infer that you are displeased with the way I am managing the business? No error
28. The success of recent Victorian art exhibitions in London, Paris, and New York illustrate a shift in both scholarly assessment and public taste. No error
29. Just as some teenagers adore video games, so others condemn it as a utter waste of time. No error
| The passage below is the unedited draft of a student's essay. Parts of the essay need to be rewritten to make the meaning clearer and more precise. Read the essay carefully. The essay is followed by six questions about changes that might improve all or part of the organization, development, sentence structure, use of language, appropriateness to the audience, or use of standard written English. In each case, choose the answer the most clearly and effectively expresses the student's intended meaning. Indicate your choice by blackening the corresponding space on the answer sheet. |
[4] A teenagers can legally hold a job at age sixteen. [5] This means that many teenagers have a steady income, which they should be able to spend as they wish. [6] Being in control of their own finances not only teaches them the value of money but how to spend it wisely.
[7] An example of a teenager with a credit card is Bonita Robbins. [8] Bonita is a junior in high school. [9] She is seventeen years old. [10] She works after school in a real estate office. [11] She earns about $100 a week. [12] After three months of work she applied for a credit card. [13] Her bank gave her one but said that there will be a "trial period" in which her parent will be responsible. [14] Most of the time Bonita paid her bills punctually and on time. [15] However, during one month Bonita charged more than she could pay, so her parents loaned her the money. [16] The next month Bonita saved her income and paid it back. [17] This was a good lesson for Bonita, because next time she'll probably be more careful about spending money.
[18] This plan also lets the parents and the teenagers plan how the credit card will be used. [19] teenagers might use the card freely to buy things for less that $25. [20] For items costing more, talk to your parents before buying them. [21] Parents could help their teenager to plan a budget or set priorities for spending money. [22] Since parents are going to assume responsibility for the card's use or abuse, they will way to have some input on how it will be used.
30. Which is the best revision of the underlined segment of sentence 3 below?
Another is because teenagers can develop good habits of spending that will be useful later in life.
(A) reason is because teenagers develop
(B) reason is that teenagers may develop
(C) idea is due to the fact that teenagers may develop
(D) may come about due to teenagers' developing
(E) idea may be because teenagers develop
31. Given the context of paragraph 3, which revision of sentences 8, 9, 10, and 11 is the most effective?
(A) Bonita, a junior in high school, earning about $100 a week by working after school in a real estate office, is seventh years old.
(B) As a junior in high school and being seventeen, she works after school in a real estate office, earns about $100 a week.
(C) A seventh-year-old high school junior, she earns $100 a week at an after-school job in a real office.
(D) Bonita Robbins earns office; she is seventeen and is a high school junior.
(E) Being a junior in high school, Bonita, seventeen years old, earning about $100 a week in a real estate office at an after-school job.
32. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 14?
(A) Bills were paid punctually.
(B) Usually Bonita had paid her bills on time.
(C) Most of the time the bills were paid by Bonita on time.
(D) Usually Bonita paid her bills punctually and on time.
(E) Usually Bonita paid her bills when they were due.
33. With regard to the whole essay, which of the following best describes the function of paragraph 3?
(A) To summarize the discussion presented in earlier paragraphs
(B) To persuade readers to change their point of view
(C) To provide an example
(D) To ridicule an idea presented earlier in the essay
(E) To draw a conclusion
34. Which revision of the underlined segment of sentence 18 below provides the best transition between the third and fourth paragraphs?
This plan also lets the parents and the teenagers plan how the credit card will be used.
(A) Another advantage of this plan is that it
(B) Another advantage of "trial" credit card program like Bonita's is that it
(C) A different advantage to Bonita's experience
(D) All of a sudden, it
(E) Together, it
35. In the context of the fourth paragraph, which is the best revision of sentence 20?
(A) Before buying items worth more teenagers might consult a parent.
(B) Teenagers should be talking to their parents before buying something that costs more that $25.
(C) But first talking about things costing more than $25 between parents and teenagers.
(D) First teenagers and parents must talk before buying something that costs more than $25.
(E) Buying something that costs more than $25 to purchase must be talked over between parents and teenagers beforehand.
The questions on remaining sections 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 are similar to the section 1, 2, and 3.
ADVICE AND INFORMATION FOR SAT
SAT - BRIEF INFORMATION
The College Entrance Examination Board, now commonly known as the College Board, administered the first Scholastic Aptitude Test in June 1926 to 8,040 mostly male and probably all-white candidates. They were applying to private colleges, mainly in the Northeast. In the 2000-2001 test year, more than 2.1 million young men and women took the SAT I: Reasoning Test as part of the admissions process for more than 1,000 private and public institutions of higher education, 80 percent of the national total.
Much of the 1926 SAT exam resembled its modern counterpart. It included analogies, reading comprehension, and arithmetic. But the time limits differed. The verbal section of the 1926 version had 245 verbal questions, to be answered in 82 minutes or 20 seconds per item. The current verbal section, in contrast, gives students 75 minutes to answer 78 questions, or 58 seconds per item. The time limit difference between the 1926 and present math sections are also notable.
The format of the SAT has also changed. The verbal and math sections were not scored separately until l931. This was done to allow college admissions staff to weigh students' scores according to the college's curriculum. Mathematics questions were eliminated and then reappeared during the first two decades of the test.
.
National SAT scores rose to their highest levels in 1963. In the 1970s, the College Board conducted 38 studies and assembled a panel to learn the causes of the subsequent steady decline in scores. The Board's conclusions noted the changing composition of the college-bound population, lower school standards, and changing mores that affected students' motivation to learn.
In recent decades, the College Board modified the SAT to account for test-takers' different cultural and educational backgrounds, and to improve the reliability of test performance measures. In 1994, antonyms were eliminated, the verbal section contained a greater emphasis on reading, non-multiple-choice questions appeared on the math section, and calculators were permitted.
Despite the great changes in American society since the SAT was first administered, the College Board's aims held: to provide educational institutions with an honest measure of American students' abilities. To remain true to the College Board's founding principles, the SAT has been adapted to reflect the needs of students and the colleges they are preparing to enter. This is part of a larger procession of change toward greater access and equity in the American educational system.
SAT is a standardized test required for admission to undergraduate programs in USA.
To
perform well on SAT, you need to work on a set of
skills that the College Board does not mention in any
of the materials that they send you: You need to be a
good test taker. That means recognizing that
standardized tests like the SAT and ACT are different
from the tests you are probably used to taking in high
school over the years, for which you may often spend
more time on difficult questions than you do on easy
ones.
In the
world of standardized tests, you are rewarded only for
answering the most questions correctly, regardless of
their difficulty. You may lose points by spending
more time on hard questions than one easy ones, or for
methodically going through the test one question at a
time. Knowing how the tests work and how they are
organized can save you a lot of anxiety (and a lot of
points) when you sit down on test day. Here are some
tips:
Make sure
you know the directions by heartThe instructions on the exam are always exactly the same. Learn them beforehand. That way you won’t waste time reading them on test day.
Keep your answer sheet clean
It sounds simple, but it is extremely important not to make mistakes filling out the answer grid. When time is short, it is easy to get confused going back and forth. But if you do, your answers will be wrong. It is smarter to grid the answers in-groups rather than one question at a time. This is how it works: Circle your answer to each question in the booklet as you figure it out. Then transfer those answers to the answer grid in groups of five or more (until you get close to the end of a section, when you should grid in answers one by one- it will help you avoid running out of time.
Don't jump to conclusions
To separate the high-scoring students from the rest of the pack, the SAT test makers purposely include tempting wrong answer choices as traps. The surest way to avoid falling for traps is to predict the answer before you look at the answer choices. For example, if you are answering an SAT sentence Completion, don’t just jump into the answer choices to see which one fits. Instead, read the sentence, predict the missing word, and then scan the answer choices to see which one matches.
Don't answer all the
questions in order
High scorers know that most SAT questions are arranged in order of difficulty. They use this to their advantage by answering easy questions first, circling problems they don’t have answers to, and moving on to the easier questions in the next section. Later, when they have answered all the easier questions, they come back if they have time.
High scorers know that most SAT questions are arranged in order of difficulty. They use this to their advantage by answering easy questions first, circling problems they don’t have answers to, and moving on to the easier questions in the next section. Later, when they have answered all the easier questions, they come back if they have time.
Guess answers
Test makers often talk about the guessing penalty on the SAT. This is a misnomer. It is really a wrong-answer penalty. Guess right, and you gain. Guess wrong and you lose points. The fact is, if you can eliminate one or more answers as definitely wrong, you will turn the odds in your favor and actually come out ahead by guessing. With practice in advance of the test day, you will learn that it is often east to eliminate several of the multiple-choice answers.
Test makers often talk about the guessing penalty on the SAT. This is a misnomer. It is really a wrong-answer penalty. Guess right, and you gain. Guess wrong and you lose points. The fact is, if you can eliminate one or more answers as definitely wrong, you will turn the odds in your favor and actually come out ahead by guessing. With practice in advance of the test day, you will learn that it is often east to eliminate several of the multiple-choice answers.
Time yourself & maintain
speed
The ACT and SAT give you a lot of questions in a short period of time. To get through a whole section, you can’t spend too much time on any one question. Keep moving through the test at a good speed. Skip harder questions, and return to them if you have time.
The ACT and SAT give you a lot of questions in a short period of time. To get through a whole section, you can’t spend too much time on any one question. Keep moving through the test at a good speed. Skip harder questions, and return to them if you have time.
Look for
quick points if you are running out of time
Some questions can be answered quickly. For instance, some reading questions will ask you to identify the meaning of a particular word in the passage. These can often be answered correctly, at the last minute, even if you haven’t read the passage pertaining to it.
Some questions can be answered quickly. For instance, some reading questions will ask you to identify the meaning of a particular word in the passage. These can often be answered correctly, at the last minute, even if you haven’t read the passage pertaining to it.
Most of the books and CD's available in the market are designed for US students. They focus more on problems faced by American students rather than International students. Some of the popular books are:
10 Real SAT's (US $17.95)
The book from the makers of SAT. It is the only book which offers real SAT questions and practice tests.
One-on-One with the SAT (Compact Disc) (US $29.95)
A practice tutorial and test series from College Board for students who are more comfortable with the computer.
The salient features are:
- The Board is a national nonprofit membership association whose mission is to prepare, inspire, and connect students to college and opportunity, with a commitment to excellence and equity.
- The Board is composed of more than 4,200 schools, colleges, universities, and other educational organizations. Each year, the College Board serves more than three million students and their parents, 22,000 high schools, and 3,500 colleges through major programs and services in college admissions, guidance, assessment, financial aid, enrollment, and teaching and learning. A board of trustees composed of 31 members, seven of whom are ex officio, governs the College Board.
- The SAT is given seven times a year at thousands of testing centers throughout the world.
- Most students take the SAT during their junior or senior year of high school.
- About half the students who take the SAT do so twice--in the spring of their junior year and fall of their senior year.
- Today, nearly 80 percent of four-year colleges and universities use test scores in admissions decisions.
- Research has repeatedly demonstrated that the best way to predict freshman year grade point average is to use a combination of SAT scores and the high school grade point average.
Even though each new SAT is constructed to meet precise content and statistical specifications, some minor differences may occur between different editions of the test. For example, some forms might be slightly more difficult or easier than others and the ability level of test-takers varies at different administrations. However, the equating portion of the SAT equalizes these differences and ensures the continuing comparability of all SAT scores.
Preparations
The best ways to get ready for the SAT I are to take challenging academic courses and to read widely outside school throughout your school years. Taking the PSAT/NMSQT® is another excellent way to get ready.
Preparation for the SAT II: Subject Tests varies for each test. For example, some Subject Tests (such as American History, Biology E/M, Chemistry, Physics) are best taken as soon as the course ends so the information is still fresh in your mind. You'll do better on other tests, like Writing and the language tests, after several years of study.
Before taking the SAT I: Reasoning Test or the SAT II: Subject Tests, familiarize yourself with the organization of the test, the types of questions that are included, and what to expect on test day.
Test Dates
| Test Dates | Test | Registration Deadlines * | |||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| U.S. Regular | U.S. Late | International Early | International Regular | ||
| October 8, 2005 | SAT & Subject Tests | Sep. 7, 2005 | Sep. 14, 2005 | N/A | Sep. 7, 2005 |
| November 5, 2005 | SAT & Subject Tests | Sep. 30, 2005 | Oct. 12, 2005 | Sep. 7, 2005 | Sep. 30, 2005 |
| December 3, 2005 | SAT & Subject Tests | Oct. 28, 2005 | Nov. 9, 2005 | Oct, 12, 2005 | Oct, 28, 2005 |
| January 28, 2006 | SAT & Subject Tests | Dec. 22, 2005 | Jan. 4, 2006 | Dec. 7, 2005 | Dec. 22, 2005 |
| April 1, 2006** | SAT only | Feb. 24, 2006 | Mar. 8, 2006 | N/A | N/A |
| May 6, 2006 | SAT & Subject Tests | Apr. 3, 2006 | Apr. 12, 2006 | Mar. 15, 2006 | Apr. 3, 2006 |
| June 3, 2006 | SAT & Subject Tests | Apr. 28, 2006 | May 10, 2006 | Apr. 12, 2006 | Apr. 28, 2006 |
|
* U.S. dates are
postmark dates; International dates are receipt
dates. ** On April 1, only the SAT is offered, and only in the U.S., U.S. Territories, and Puerto Rico. |
|||||
|
NOTES:
|
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Fees
| Test | Fee |
| SAT Reasoning Test | $41.50 |
|
SAT Subject Tests
(add the $18.00 Basic Registration Fee to the total fee for the Subject Tests): Language Tests with Listening All other Subject Tests |
$19.00 $ 8.00 |
| Services | Fee |
| Late registration fee | $21.00 |
| Standby testing fee | $36.00 |
| Change test, test date, or test center fee | $20.00 |
| Scores by Web | Free |
| Scores by Phone | $11.00 |
| Extra score report to a college or scholarship program (in addition to four score reports included at no charge on the Registration or Correction Form) | |
Because the fees for SAT Subject Tests differ, an $18 basic fee is added to the total for all subjects taken, and it covers sending score reports to up to four colleges and scholarship programs.
Additional service fees for the Question-and-Answer Service (QAS) and the Student Answer Service (SAS) are refundable. The fee for each additional score report is also refundable. Payment must be made in U.S. dollars.
|
Test
|
Fees |
|---|---|
| SAT Reasoning Test | $41.50 |
|
SAT Subject Tests Basic registration fee Language Tests with Listening All other Subject Tests |
$18.00 add $19.00 add $ 8.00 |
| Registration Services (add to total test fees) | |
| Late registration fee | $21.00 |
| Re-registration by telephone | $10.00 |
| International processing fee (for students testing in countries other than the United States, U.S. territories, and Puerto Rico) | $21.00 |
| Security surcharge to test in India and Pakistan | $21.00 |
| Standby testing fee | $36.00 |
| Change test, test date, or test center fee | $20.00 |
| Score Reporting Services | |
| Extra score report to a college or scholarship program (in addition to the four score reports provided free of charge on the Registration Form or on the Correction Form) | $ 9.00 |
| Retrieval fee for archived scores |
$17.00 (additional fees may apply) |
| Telephone rush reporting service |
$26.00 (plus $9.00 for each report) |
| Telephone additional reports |
$10.00 (plus $9.00 for each report) |
| Scores by Phone | $11.00 |
| Additional Services | |
| Question-and-Answer Service | $24.00 |
| Student Answer Service | $10.00 |
| Copy of your answer sheet | $10.00 |
| Additional Fees | |
| Mulitple-choice Score Verification | $50.00 |
| Essay Score Verification | $50.00 |
| Check returned for insufficient funds |
$20.00 ($15.00 in Idaho, Louisiana, and Utah) |
- CreditCard Visa, MasterCard or American Express
- Bank Draft (Dollar not Indian Rupees)
- Check Drawn on a U.S. Bank
- United States Postal Service Money Order
- International Money Order
- UNESCO Coupon
- Postal Reply Coupon
1. By Fax (Credit Card required): Fill up the form and write your credit card number in the space provided and fax the form to : 001 609 683 1234. Please don't forget to add $5 extra to the test fee for fax registration.
2. Online Registration (Credit Card required): Fill up the form online and mention your credit card number. This is the easiest way to register for SAT
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